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Class Forums - Fall 2008

PHIL 260-004 - History of Ancient Philosophy

Nescience?

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David Mihulka
Fledgling

5 Posts

Posted - Oct 09 2008 : 8:56:05 PM

Book V of the Republic discusses "nescience." According to the dictionary, this word refers to ignorance. Is this simply ignorance as we know it, or is there an underlying meaning to it that the Greeks associated with it?

[Very lightly edited to enhance readability -TT]

Michael Schneider
Moderator

12 Posts

Posted - Oct 09 2008 : 9:35:41 PM

Having had to re-read that section for basically the same reason as you, I believe I have a good grasp of what Socrates is referring to when he speaks of nescience. It is ignorance as you said, but he is using the word in the context of a contrast with knowledge, which I believe is considered science -- something that is certain.

For instance he says, "That since the fair and honorable is the opposite of the base and ugly, they are two." and then "And since they are two, each is one," saying that since these are opposites of each other, knowledge too must have an opposite. Further he says, "Then since knowledge pertains to that which is and ignorance of necessity to that which is not, for that which lies between we must seek for something between nescience and science...," and the thing they come to agreement about is that opinion is between the unknowable or nescience and the knowable or science (Collected Dialogues 715-716, the passage that runs from 475e to 477b.). I don't know if that is what you wanted, but it is what I got from the discussion of nescience. =)

[Lightly edited to enhance readability -TT]

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